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§802. Definitions — Inbound Citations

21 U.S.C. § 802

Implementing Regulations (Code of Federal Regulations)

Statutory authority for 145 regulations in the Code of Federal Regulations.

Code of Federal Regulations Citations

Cited by 104 regulations in the Code of Federal Regulations.

  • 12 C.F.R. § 338.2(d)(3) — Definitions applicable to this subpart.
    (3) Being regarded as having such an impairment, but such term does not include current, illegal use of or addiction to a controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)).
  • 19 C.F.R. § 162.45(b)(1) — Summary forfeiture: Property other than Schedule I and Schedule II controlled substances. Notice of seizure and sale.
    (1) If the appraised value of any property in one seizure from one person, other than Schedule I and Schedule II controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(6) and 812), exceeds $5,000, the notice will be published by its posting on an official Government forfeiture Web site for at least 30 consecutive days. Information pertaining to the Government forfeiture Web site will be posted in a conspicuous place that is accessible to the public at all customhouses and all sector offices of the U.S. Border Patrol. In CBP's sole discretion, and as circumstances warrant, additional publication for at least three successive weeks in a print medium may be provided. All known parties-in-interest will be notified in writing of the Government Web site address and the date of Internet publication (and pertinent information regarding print publication, when appropriate).
  • 19 C.F.R. § 162.45a — Summary forfeiture of Schedule I and Schedule II controlled substances.
    The Controlled Substances Act (84 Stat. 1242, 21 U.S.C. 801 et seq.) provides that all controlled substances in Schedule I and Schedule II (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(6) and 812) that are possessed, transferred, sold or offered for sale in violation of the Act will be deemed contraband, seized and summarily forfeited to the United States (21 U.S.C. 881(f)). The Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (21 U.S.C. 951 et seq.) incorporates by reference this contraband forfeiture provision of 21 U.S.C. 881. See 21 U.S.C. 965. Accordingly, in the case of a seizure of Schedule I or Schedule II controlled substances, the Fines, Penalties, and Forfeitures Officer or his designee will contact the appropriate Drug Enforcement Administration official responsible for issuing permits authorizing the importation of such substances (see 21 CFR part 1312). If upon inquiry the Fines, Penalties, and Forfeitures Officer or his designee is notified that no permit for lawful importation has been issued, he will declare the seized substances contraband and forfeited pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 881(f). Inasmuch as such substances are Schedule I and Schedule II controlled substances, the notice procedures set forth in § 162.45 are inapplicable. When seized controlled substances are required as evidence in a court proceeding, they will be preserved to the extent and in the quantities necessary for that purpose.
  • Arrests and seizures under the Controlled Substances Act (84 Stat. 1242, 21 U.S.C. 801 et seq.), and the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (84 Stat. 1285, 21 U.S.C. 951 et seq.), will be handled in the same manner as other Customs arrests and seizures. However, Schedule I and Schedule II controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(6) and 812) imported contrary to law will be seized and forfeited in the manner provided in the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 881(f)). See § 162.45a.
  • 19 C.F.R. § 171.51(b)(3) — Application and definitions.
    (3) “Controlled substance” has the meaning given in 21 U.S.C. 802.
  • As used in this part—
  • 20 C.F.R. § 686.545(a)(2) — What is Job Corps' zero tolerance policy?
    (2) Use, sale, or possession of a controlled substance, as defined at 21 U.S.C. 802;
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1300.01(a) — Definitions relating to controlled substances.
    (a) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802), except that certain terms used in part 1316 of this chapter are defined at the beginning of each subpart of that part.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1300.02(a) — Definitions relating to listed chemicals.
    (a) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802), except that certain terms used in part 1316 of this chapter are defined at the beginning of each subpart of that part.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1300.04(a) — Definitions relating to the dispensing of controlled substances by means of the Internet.
    (a) Any term not defined in this part or elsewhere in this chapter shall have the definition set forth in sections 102 and 309 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802, 829).
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1300.05(a) — Definitions relating to the disposal of controlled substances.
    (a) Any term not defined in this part or elsewhere in this chapter shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1300.06(a) — Definitions relating to emergency medical services agencies.
    (a) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1301.11(d) — Persons required to register; requirement of modification of registration authorizing activity as an online pharmacy.
    (d) As provided in sections 303(f) and 401(h) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f) and 841(h)), it is unlawful for any person who falls within the definition of “online pharmacy” (as set forth in section 102(52) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(52)) and § 1300.04(h) of this chapter) to deliver, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance by means of the internet if such person is not validly registered with a modification of such registration authorizing such activity (unless such person is exempt from such modified registration requirement under the Act or this chapter). The Act further provides that the Administrator may only issue such modification of registration to a person who is registered as a pharmacy under section 303(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(f)). Accordingly, any pharmacy registered pursuant to § 1301.13 that falls within the definition of an online pharmacy and proposes to dispense controlled substances by means of the internet must obtain a modification of its registration authorizing such activity following the submission of an application in accordance with § 1301.19. This requirement does not apply to a registered pharmacy that does not fall within the definition of an online pharmacy set forth in § 1300.04(h) of this chapter. Under the Act, persons other than registered pharmacies are not eligible to obtain such a modification of registration but remain liable under section 401(h) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 841(h)) if they deliver, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance while acting as an online pharmacy without being validly registered with a modification authorizing such activity.
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or § 1300.01, § 1300.03, § 1300.04, or § 1300.05 of this chapter.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1304.45(b)(7) — Internet Web site disclosure requirements.
    (7) “This online pharmacy is obligated to comply fully with the Controlled Substances Act and DEA regulations. As part of this obligation, this online pharmacy has obtained a modified DEA registration authorizing it to operate as an online pharmacy. In addition, this online pharmacy will only dispense a controlled substance to a person who has a valid prescription issued for a legitimate medical purpose based upon a medical relationship with a prescribing practitioner. This includes at least one prior in-person medical evaluation in accordance with section 309 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 829) or a medical evaluation via telemedicine in accordance with section 102(54) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802(54)).”
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1304.50 — Disclosure requirements for Web sites of nonpharmacy practitioners that dispense controlled substances by means of the Internet.
    For a Web site to identify itself as being exempt from the definition of an online pharmacy by virtue of section 102(52)(B)(ii) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(52)(B)(ii)) and § 1300.04(h)(2) of this chapter, the Web site shall post in a visible and clear manner on its homepage, or on a page directly linked thereto in which the hyperlink is also visible and clear on the homepage, a list of the DEA-registered nonpharmacy practitioners who are affiliated with the Web site. Any nonpharmacy practitioner affiliated with such a Web site is responsible for compliance with this section. An institutional practitioner that otherwise complies with the requirements of the Act and this chapter will be deemed to meet the requirements of this section if, in lieu of posting the names of each affiliated individual practitioner, it posts its name (as it appears on its Certificate of Registration) in a visible and clear manner on its homepage and in a manner that identifies itself as being responsible for the operation of the Web site.
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1306.07(f) — Administering or dispensing of narcotic drugs.
    (f) Notwithstanding the definition of dispense under section 102(10) of the Act (21 U.S.C 802(10)), a pharmacy may deliver a controlled substance to a practitioner, pursuant to a prescription that meets the requirements under § 1306.04 for the purpose of administering the controlled substance by the practitioner if:
    (1) The controlled substance is delivered by the pharmacy to the prescribing practitioner or the practitioner administering the controlled substance (in this paragraph (f) referred to as the “administering practitioner”), as applicable, at the location listed on the practitioner's DEA certificate of registration;
    (2) The controlled substance is a narcotic drug in schedule III, IV, or V to be administered for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment and is to be administered by injection or implantation;
    (3) The pharmacy, the prescribing practitioner, and the administering practitioner (as applicable) are authorized to conduct such activities specified in this paragraph (f) under the law of the State in which such activities take place;
    (4) The prescription is not issued to supply any practitioner with a stock of controlled substances for the purpose of general dispensing to patients;
    (5) The controlled substance is to be administered only to the patient named on the prescription not later than 45 days after the date of receipt of the controlled substance by the practitioner; and
    (6) Notwithstanding any exceptions under section 307 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 827), the prescribing practitioner and the administering practitioner, as applicable, shall maintain complete and accurate records of all controlled substances delivered, received, administered, or otherwise disposed of under this paragraph (f), including the persons to whom the controlled substances were delivered and such other information as may be required under this chapter. Recordkeeping requirements for prescriptions are addressed in §§ 1304.03(c) and 1304.06 of this chapter.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1306.51(a) — Telemedicine prescribing of schedule III-V medications for the treatment of Opioid Use Disorder.
    (a) For purposes of this section, terms defined in part 1300 of this chapter, elsewhere in this chapter, or in 21 U.S.C. 802 and 829 shall have the definitions set forth therein.
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • (2) Marijuana, as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(16), in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or subject to a state medical marijuana license—XXXX
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1308.25(a) — Exclusion of a veterinary anabolic steroid implant product; application.
    (a) Any person seeking to have any anabolic steroid product, which is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, identified as being excluded from any schedule, pursuant to section 102(41)(B)(i) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(i)), may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration . See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1308.26(b) — Excluded veterinary anabolic steroid implant products.
    (b) In accordance with section 102(41)(B)(ii) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(ii)) if any person prescribes, dispenses, or distributes a product listed in paragraph (a) of this section for human use, such person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed, or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of section 102(41)(A) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(A)).
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1308.50(a)(1) — Temporary and permanent scheduling of recently emerged anabolic steroids.
    (1) The drug or other substance satisfies the criteria for being considered an anabolic steroid under 21 U.S.C. 802(41) but is not listed in that section or by regulation of the Attorney General as being an anabolic steroid; and
  • Procedures governing the registration of manufacturers, distributors, importers and exporters of List I chemicals pursuant to Sections 102, 302, 303, 1007 and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802, 822, 823, 957 and 958) are set forth generally by those sections and specifically by the sections of this part.
  • Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1310.08 — Excluded transactions.
    Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 802(39)(A)(iii), regulation of the following transactions has been determined to be unnecessary for the enforcement of the Chemical Diversion and Trafficking Act and, therefore, they have been excluded from the definitions of regulated transactions:
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1312.30(b) — Schedule III, IV, and V non-narcotic controlled substances requiring an import and export permit.
    (b) Marijuana, as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(16), in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product or subject to a state medical marijuana license.
  • Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • 21 C.F.R. § 1313.33(b) — Contents of an international transaction declaration.
    (b) Any broker or trader who desires to arrange an international transaction, defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(42), involving a listed chemical which meets the threshold criteria set forth in § 1310.04 of this chapter must notify the Administration through the procedures outlined in § 1313.32(b).
  • (a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • (g) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • (h) Any term not defined in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
  • (e) As used in this part, the terms cannabis, medicinal cannabis, and cannabis preparation do not include any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that falls outside the definition of marihuana in section 102(16) of the Controlled Substances Act (the Act) (21 U.S.C. 802(16)).
  • (i) A controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802));
  • 22 C.F.R. § 40.21(b)(1) — Crimes involving moral turpitude and controlled substance violators.
    (1) An alien shall be ineligible under INA 212(a)(2)(A)(i)(II) irrespective of whether the conviction for a violation of or for conspiracy to violate any law or regulation relating to a controlled substance, as defined in the Controlled Substance Act (21 U.S.C. 802), occurred before, on, or after October 27, 1986.
  • 23 C.F.R. § 1200.23(b)(2) — Impaired driving countermeasures grants.
    (2) Be subject to testing for alcohol or drugs at least twice per day by continuous transdermal alcohol monitoring via an electronic monitoring device, or by an alternative method approved by NHTSA.
    Alcohol means wine, beer and distilled spirits.
    Average impaired driving fatality rate means the number of fatalities in motor vehicle crashes involving a driver with a blood alcohol concentration of at least 0.08 percent for every 100,000,000 vehicle miles traveled, based on the most recently reported three calendar years of final data from the FARS.
    Assessment means a NHTSA-facilitated process that employs a team of subject matter experts to conduct a comprehensive review of a specific highway safety program in a State.
    Driving under the influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of alcohol and drugs means operating a vehicle while the alcohol and/or drug concentration in the blood or breath, as determined by chemical or other tests, equals or exceeds the level established by the State or is equivalent to the standard offense for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs in the State.
    Driving While Intoxicated (DWI) Court means a court that specializes in cases involving driving while intoxicated and abides by the Ten Guiding Principles of DWI Courts in effect on the date of the grant, as established by the National Center for DWI Courts.
    Drugs means controlled substances as that term is defined under section 102(6) of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802(6).
    High visibility enforcement efforts means participation in national impaired driving law enforcement campaigns organized by NHTSA, participation in impaired driving law enforcement campaigns organized by the State, or the use of sobriety checkpoints and/or saturation patrols, conducted in a highly visible manner and supported by publicity through paid or earned media.
    High-range State means a State that has an average impaired driving fatality rate of 0.60 or higher.
    Low-range State means a State that has an average impaired driving fatality rate of 0.30 or lower.
    Mid-range State means a State that has an average impaired driving fatality rate that is higher than 0.30 and lower than 0.60.
    Saturation patrol means a law enforcement activity during which enhanced levels of law enforcement are conducted in a concentrated geographic area (or areas) for the purpose of detecting drivers operating motor vehicles while impaired by alcohol and/or other drugs.
    Sobriety checkpoint means a law enforcement activity during which law enforcement officials stop motor vehicles on a non-discriminatory, lawful basis for the purpose of determining whether the operators of such motor vehicles are driving while impaired by alcohol and/or other drugs.
    Standard offense for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs means the offense described in a State's law that makes it a criminal offense to operate a motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, but does not require a measurement of alcohol or drug content.
  • (d) or substance means a controlled or counterfeit substance, as those terms are defined in subsections 102 (6) and (7) of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 (21 U.S.C. 802 (6) and (7) and listed in 21 CFR 1308.11-.15.
  • (4) Prohibit conduct against a person because such person has been convicted by any court of competent jurisdiction of the illegal manufacture or distribution of a controlled substance as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • As used in this subpart:
  • Drug-related criminal activity means the illegal manufacture, sale, distribution, use or possession with the intent to manufacture, sell, distribute, or use, of a controlled substance as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802.
  • The following definitions apply to this part and also in other regulations, as noted:
  • The definitions Department, HUD, and Public Housing Agency (PHA) are defined in part 5 of this title.
  • Annual Contributions Contract (ACC). As defined in part 5 of this title.
  • (b) In the case of a Private-Owner/PHA Project, a written agreement between the private owner and the PHA, approved by HUD, that, upon satisfactory completion of the housing in accordance with the HUD-approved Proposal and submission by RHCDS of the required certifications, the PHA will enter into a Housing Assistance Payments Contract with the Private Owner.
    Annual contributions contract (“ACC”). In the case of a Private-Owner/PHA Project, a written agreement between HUD and the PHA to provide annual contributions to the PHA with respect to the project.
    Annual income. As defined in part 5 of this title.
    Contract. See definition of Housing Assistance Payments Contract.
    Contract rent. The rent payable to the Owner under his Contract including the portion of the rent payable by the Family. In the case of a cooperative, the term “Contract Rent” means charges under the occupancy agreements between the members and the cooperative.
    Covered housing provider. For the Section 8 Housing Assistance Payments Programs, New Construction Set-Aside for Section 515 Rural Rental Housing, “covered housing provider,” as such term is used in HUD's regulations at 24 CFR part 5, subpart L (Protection for Victims of Domestic Violence, Dating Violence, Sexual Assault, or Stalking), refers to the owner.
    Decent, safe, and sanitary. Housing is decent, safe, and sanitary if it meets the physical condition requirements in 24 CFR part 5, subpart G.
    Drug-related criminal activity. The illegal manufacture, sale, distribution, use or possession with the intent to manufacture, sell, distribute, or use, of a controlled substance as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802.
    Family. As defined in part 5 of this title.
    HCD Act. The Housing and Community Development Act of 1974.
    Housing Assistance Payment. The payment made by the contract administrator to the Owner of an assisted unit as provided in the Contract. Where the unit is leased to an eligible Family, the payment is the difference between the Contract Rent and Tenant Rent. An additional Housing Assistance Payment is made to the Family when the Utility Allowance is greater than the Total Tenant Payment. A Housing Assistance Payment may be made to the Owner when a unit becomes vacant, in accordance with the terms of the Contract.
    Housing assistance payments contract (“Contract”). (a) In the case of a Private-Owner Project or a PHA-Owner Project, a written contract between the Owner and HUD for the purpose of providing housing assistance payments to the Owner on behalf of Eligible Families.
  • (3) Any muzzle loading rifle, muzzle loading shotgun, or muzzle loading pistol that is designed to use black powder, or a black powder substitute, and that cannot use fixed ammunition. For purposes of this paragraph (3), the term “antique firearm” does not include any weapon that incorporates a firearm frame or receiver, any firearm that is converted into a muzzle loading weapon, or any muzzle loading weapon that can be readily converted to fire fixed ammunition by replacing the barrel, bolt, breechblock, or any combination thereof.
    Armor piercing ammunition. Projectiles or projectile cores which may be used in a handgun and which are constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from one or a combination of tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper, or depleted uranium; or full jacketed projectiles larger than .22 caliber designed and intended for use in a handgun and whose jacket has a weight of more than 25 percent of the total weight of the projectile. The term does not include shotgun shot required by Federal or State environmental or game regulations for hunting purposes, frangible projectiles designed for target shooting, projectiles which the Director finds are primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes, or any other projectiles or projectile cores which the Director finds are intended to be used for industrial purposes, including charges used in oil and gas well perforating devices.
    ATF officer. An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF) authorized to perform any function relating to the administration or enforcement of this part.
    Business premises. The property on which the manufacturing or importing of firearms or ammunition or the dealing in firearms is or will be conducted. A private dwelling, no part of which is open to the public, shall not be recognized as coming within the meaning of the term.
    Chief, Federal Firearms Licensing Center (FFLC). The ATF official responsible for the issuance and renewal of licenses under this part.
    Collector. Any person who acquires, holds, or disposes of firearms as curios or relics.
    Collection premises. The premises described on the license of a collector as the location at which he maintains his collection of curios and relics.
    Commerce. Travel, trade, traffic, commerce, transportation, or communication among the several States, or between the District of Columbia and any State, or between any foreign country or any territory or possession and any State or the District of Columbia, or between points in the same State but through any other State or the District of Columbia or a foreign country.
    Committed to a mental institution. A formal commitment of a person to a mental institution by a court, board, commission, or other lawful authority. The term includes a commitment to a mental institution involuntarily. The term includes commitment for mental defectiveness or mental illness. It also includes commitments for other reasons, such as for drug use. The term does not include a person in a mental institution for observation or a voluntary admission to a mental institution.
    Complete muffler or silencer device. A firearm muffler or firearm silencer that contains all component parts necessary to function, whether or not assembled or operable.
    Complete weapon. A firearm other than a firearm muffler or firearm silencer that contains all component parts necessary to function, whether or not assembled or operable.
    Controlled substance. A drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802. The term includes, but is not limited to, marijuana, depressants, stimulants, and narcotic drugs. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in Subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
    Crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year. Any Federal, State or foreign offense for which the maximum penalty, whether or not imposed, is capital punishment or imprisonment in excess of 1 year. The term shall not include (a) any Federal or State offenses pertaining to antitrust violations, unfair trade practices, restraints of trade, or other similar offenses relating to the regulation of business practices or (b) any State offense classified by the laws of the State as a misdemeanor and punishable by a term of imprisonment of 2 years or less. What constitutes a conviction of such a crime shall be determined in accordance with the law of the jurisdiction in which the proceedings were held. Any conviction which has been expunged or set aside or for which a person has been pardoned or has had civil rights restored shall not be considered a conviction for the purposes of the Act or this part, unless such pardon, expunction, or restoration of civil rights expressly provides that the person may not ship, transport, possess, or receive firearms, or unless the person is prohibited by the law of the jurisdiction in which the proceedings were held from receiving or possessing any firearms.
    Curios or relics. Firearms which are of special interest to collectors by reason of some quality other than is associated with firearms intended for sporting use or as offensive or defensive weapons. To be recognized as curios or relics, firearms must fall within one of the following categories:
  • 27 C.F.R. § 478.32(a)(3) — Prohibited shipment, transportation, possession, purchase, or receipt of firearms and ammunition by certain persons.
    (3) Is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802),
  • 27 C.F.R. § 478.99(c)(3) — Certain prohibited sales, purchases, or deliveries.
    (3) Is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substance Act, 21 U.S.C. 802);
  • 27 C.F.R. § 555.106(c)(3) — Certain prohibited distributions.
    (3) Is an unlawful user of marijuana, or any depressant or stimulant drug, or narcotic drug (as these terms are defined in the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802);
  • (d) Social security number, as optional information (this information is not required but is helpful in avoiding misidentification when a background check is conducted).
    Approved storage facility. A place where explosive materials are stored, consisting of one or more approved magazines, conforming to the requirements of this part and covered by a license or permit issued under this part.
    Articles pyrotechnic. Pyrotechnic devices for professional use similar to consumer fireworks in chemical composition and construction but not intended for consumer use. Such articles meeting the weight limits for consumer fireworks but not labeled as such and classified by U.S. Department of Transportation regulations in 49 CFR 172.101 as UN0431 or UN0432.
    Artificial barricade. An artificial mound or revetted wall of earth of a minimum thickness of three feet, or any other approved barricade that offers equivalent protection.
    ATF. The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
    ATF officer. An officer or employee of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), Department of Justice authorized to perform any function relating to the administration or enforcement of this part.
    Authority having jurisdiction for fire safety. The fire department having jurisdiction over sites where explosives are manufactured or stored.
    Barricaded. The effective screening of a magazine containing explosive materials from another magazine, a building, a railway, or a highway, either by a natural barricade or by an artificial barricade. To be properly barricaded, a straight line from the top of any sidewall of the magazine containing explosive materials to the eave line of any other magazine or building, or to a point 12 feet above the center of a railway or highway, will pass through the natural or artificial barricade.
    Blasting agent. Any material or mixture, consisting of fuel and oxidizer, that is intended for blasting and not otherwise defined as an explosive; if the finished product, as mixed for use or shipment, cannot be detonated by means of a number 8 test blasting cap when unconfined. A number 8 test blasting cap is one containing 2 grams of a mixture of 80 percent mercury fulminate and 20 percent potassium chlorate, or a blasting cap of equivalent strength. An equivalent strength cap comprises 0.40-0.45 grams of PETN base charge pressed in an aluminum shell with bottom thickness not to exceed to 0.03 of an inch, to a specific gravity of not less than 1.4 g/cc., and primed with standard weights of primer depending on the manufacturer.
    Bulk salutes. Salute components prior to final assembly into aerial shells, and finished salute shells held separately prior to being packed with other types of display fireworks.
    Bullet-sensitive explosive materials. Explosive materials that can be exploded by 150-grain M2 ball ammunition having a nominal muzzle velocity of 2700 fps (824 mps) when fired from a .30 caliber rifle at a distance of 100 ft (30.5 m), measured perpendicular. The test material is at a temperature of 70 to 75 degrees F (21 to 24 degrees C) and is placed against a 1/2 inch (12.4 mm) steel backing plate.
    Bureau. The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
    Business premises. When used with respect to a manufacturer, importer, or dealer, the property on which explosive materials are manufactured, imported, stored or distributed. The premises include the property where the records of a manufacturer, importer, or dealer are kept if different than the premises where explosive materials are manufactured, imported, stored or distributed. When used with respect to a user of explosive materials, the property on which the explosive materials are received or stored. The premises includes the property where the records of the users are kept if different than the premises where explosive materials are received or stored.
    Chief, Firearms and Explosives Licensing Center. The ATF official responsible for the issuance and renewal of licenses and permits under this part.
    Committed to a mental institution. A formal commitment of a person to a mental institution by a court, board, commission, or other lawful authority. The term includes a commitment to a mental institution involuntarily. The term includes commitment for mental defectiveness or mental illness. It also includes commitments for other reasons, such as for drug use. The term does not include a person in a mental institution for observation or a voluntary admission to a mental institution.
    Common or contract carrier. Any individual or organization engaged in the business of transporting passengers or goods.
    Consumer fireworks. Any small firework device designed to produce visible effects by combustion and which must comply with the construction, chemical composition, and labeling regulations of the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, as set forth in title 16, Code of Federal Regulations, parts 1500 and 1507. Some small devices designed to produce audible effects are included, such as whistling devices, ground devices containing 50 mg or less of explosive materials, and aerial devices containing 130 mg or less of explosive materials. Consumer fireworks are classified as fireworks UN0336, and UN0337 by the U.S. Department of Transportation at 49 CFR 172.101. This term does not include fused setpieces containing components which together exceed 50 mg of salute powder.
    Controlled substance. A drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802. The term includes, but is not limited to, marijuana, depressants, stimulants, and narcotic drugs. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in Subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
    Crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year. Any offense for which the maximum penalty, whether or not imposed, is capital punishment or imprisonment in excess of one year. The term does not include (a) any Federal or State offenses pertaining to antitrust violations, unfair trade practices, restraints of trade, or (b) any State offense (other than one involving a firearm or explosive) classified by the laws of the State as a misdemeanor and punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less.
    Customs officer. Any officer of U.S. Customs and Border Protection, any commissioned, warrant, or petty officer of the Coast Guard, or any agent or other person authorized by law to perform the duties of a customs officer.
    Dealer. Any person engaged in the business of distributing explosive materials at wholesale or retail.
    Detonator. Any device containing a detonating charge that is used for initiating detonation in an explosive. The term includes, but is not limited to, electric blasting caps of instantaneous and delay types, blasting caps for use with safety fuses, detonating-cord delay connectors, and nonelectric instantaneous and delay blasting caps.
    Director. The Director, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
    Director, Industry Operations. The principal field division official responsible for administering regulations in this part.
    Discharged under dishonorable conditions. Separation from the U.S. Armed Forces resulting from a dishonorable discharge or dismissal adjudged by general court-martial. The term does not include any separation from the Armed Forces resulting from any other discharge, e.g., a bad conduct discharge.
    Display fireworks. Large fireworks designed primarily to produce visible or audible effects by combustion, deflagration, or detonation. This term includes, but is not limited to, salutes containing more than 2 grains (130 mg) of explosive materials, aerial shells containing more than 40 grams of pyrotechnic compositions, and other display pieces which exceed the limits of explosive materials for classification as “consumer fireworks.” Display fireworks are classified as fireworks UN0333, UN0334 or UN0335 by the U.S. Department of Transportation at 49 CFR 172.101. This term also includes fused setpieces containing components which together exceed 50 mg of salute powder.
    Distribute. To sell, issue, give, transfer, or otherwise dispose of. The term does not include a mere change of possession from a person to his agent or employee in connection with the agency or employment.
    Executed under penalties of perjury. Signed with the required declaration under the penalties of perjury as provided on or with respect to the return, form, or other document or, where no form of declaration is required, with the declaration:
    Explosive actuated device. Any tool or special mechanized device which is actuated by explosives, but not a propellent actuated device.
    Explosive materials. Explosives, blasting agents, water gels and detonators. Explosive materials include, but are not limited to, all items in the “List of Explosive Materials” provided for in § 555.23.
    Explosives. Any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion. The term includes, but is not limited to, dynamite and other high explosives, black powder, pellet powder, initiating explosives, detonators, safety fuses, squibs, detonating cord, igniter cord, and igniters.
    Fireworks. Any composition or device designed to produce a visible or an audible effect by combustion, deflagration, or detonation, and which meets the definition of “consumer fireworks” or “display fireworks” as defined by this section.
    Fireworks mixing building. Any building or area used for mixing and blending pyrotechnic compositions except wet sparkler mix.
    Fireworks nonprocess building. Any office building or other building or area in a fireworks plant where no fireworks, pyrotechnic compositions or explosive materials are processed or stored.
    Fireworks plant. All land and buildings thereon used for or in connection with the assembly or processing of fireworks, including warehouses used with or in connection with fireworks plant operations.
    Fireworks plant warehouse. Any building or structure used exclusively for the storage of materials which are neither explosive materials nor pyrotechnic compositions used to manufacture or assemble fireworks.
    Fireworks process building. Any mixing building; any building in which pyrotechnic compositions or explosive materials is pressed or otherwise prepared for finished and assembly; or any finishing or assembly building.
    Fireworks shipping building. A building used for the packing of assorted display fireworks into shipping cartons for individual public displays and for the loading of packaged displays for shipment to purchasers.
    Flash powder. An explosive material intended to produce an audible report and a flash of light when ignited which includes but is not limited to oxidizers such as potassium chlorate or potassium perchlorate, and fuels such as sulfur or aluminum powder.
    Fugitive from justice. Any person who has fled from the jurisdiction of any court of record to avoid prosecution for any crime or to avoid giving testimony in any criminal proceeding. The term also includes any person who has been convicted of any crime and has fled to avoid imprisonment.
    Hardwood. Oak, maple, ash, hickory, or other hard wood, free from loose knots, spaces, or similar defects.
    Highway. Any public street, public alley, or public road, including a privately financed, constructed, or maintained road that is regularly and openly traveled by the general public.
    Identification document. A document containing the name, residence address, date of birth, and photograph of the holder and which was made or issued by or under the authority of the United States Government, a State, political subdivision of a State, a foreign government, a political subdivision of a foreign government, an international governmental or an international quasi-governmental organization which, when completed with information concerning a particular individual, is of a type intended or commonly accepted for the purpose of identification of individuals.
    Importer. Any person engaged in the business of importing or bringing explosive materials into the United States for purposes of sale or distribution.
    Indictment. Includes an indictment or information in any court under which a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year may be prosecuted.
    Inhabited building. Any building regularly occupied in whole or in part as a habitation for human beings, or any church, schoolhouse, railroad station, store, or other structure where people are accustomed to assemble, except any building occupied in connection with the manufacture, transportation, storage, or use of explosive materials.
    Interstate or foreign commerce. Commerce between any place in a State and any place outside of that State, or within any possession of the United States or the District of Columbia, and commerce between places within the same State but through any place outside of that State.
    Licensed dealer. A dealer licensed under this part.
    Licensed importer. An importer licensed under this part.
    Licensed manufacturer. A manufacturer licensed under this part to engage in the business of manufacturing explosive materials for purposes of sale or distribution or for his own use.
    Licensee. Any importer, manufacturer, or dealer licensed under this part.
    Limited permit. A permit issued to a person authorizing him to receive for his use explosive materials from a licensee or permittee in his state of residence on no more than 6 occasions during the 12-month period in which the permit is valid. A limited permit does not authorize the receipt or transportation of explosive materials in interstate or foreign commerce.
    Magazine. Any building or structure, other than an explosives manufacturing building, used for storage of explosive materials.
    Manufacturer. Any person engaged in the business of manufacturing explosive materials for purposes of sale or distribution or for his own use.
    Mass detonation (mass explosion). Explosive materials mass detonate (mass explode) when a unit or any part of a larger quantity of explosive material explodes and causes all or a substantial part of the remaining material to detonate or explode.
    Mental institution. Includes mental health facilities, mental hospitals, sanitariums, psychiatric facilities, and other facilities that provide diagnoses by licensed professionals of mental retardation or mental illness, including a psychiatric ward in a general hospital.
    Natural barricade. Natural features of the ground, such as hills, or timber of sufficient density that the surrounding exposures which require protection cannot be seen from the magazine when the trees are bare of leaves.
    Number 8 test blasting cap. (See definition of “blasting agent.”)
    Permittee. Any user of explosives for a lawful purpose who has obtained either a user permit or a limited permit under this part.
    Person. Any individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, society, or joint stock company.
    Plywood. Exterior, construction grade (laminated wood) plywood.
    Propellant actuated device. (a) Any tool or special mechanized device or gas generator system that is actuated by a propellant or which releases and directs work through a propellant charge.
  • 27 C.F.R. § 555.26(c)(3) — Prohibited shipment, transportation, receipt, possession, or distribution of explosive materials.
    (3) Is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802) and § 555.11);
  • (c) Title I, State Firearms Control Assistance (18 U.S.C. Chapter 44), of the Gun Control Act of 1968 (82 Stat. 1213) as amended by Pub. L. 99-308 (100 Stat. 449) and Pub. L. 99-360 (100 Stat. 766), provides that no person may ship or transport any firearms or ammunition in interstate or foreign commerce, or receive any firearms or ammunition which has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce, or possess any firearms or ammunition in or affecting commerce, who (1) has been convicted of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year, (2) is a fugitive from justice, (3) is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802), (4) has been adjudicated as a mental defective or has been committed to a mental institution, (5) is an alien illegally or unlawfully in the United States, (6) has been discharged from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions, or (7) having been a citizen of the United States, has renounced citizenship.
  • (1) The individual is legally adopted by the officer; or
  • 28 C.F.R. § 76.3(c) — Basis for civil penalty.
    (c) A civil penalty may not be assessed under this part if the individual previously was convicted of a federal or state offense relating to a controlled substance as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • (4) The respondent has not been convicted of a federal or state offense relating to a controlled substance as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802); and
  • (3) Commercially supplies, stores, refrigerates, or transports fish, fish products, or materials directly related to fishing or the preparation of fish to or from a fishing, fish processing, or fish tender vessel or fish processing facility.
    Controlled substance has the meaning given in 21 U.S.C. 802(6).
    Normal and customary manner means that inquiry suggested by particular facts and circumstances that would customarily be undertaken by a reasonably prudent individual in a like or similar situation. Actual knowledge of such facts and circumstances is unnecessary, and implied, imputed, or constructive knowledge is sufficient. An established norm, standard, or custom is persuasive but not conclusive or controlling in determining whether an owner acted in a normal and customary manner to ascertain how property would be used by another legally in possession of the property. The failure to act in a normal and customary manner as defined herein will result in the denial of a petition for expedited release of the property and is intended to have the desirable effect of inducing owners of the property to exercise greater care in transferring possession of their property.
    Owner means one having a legal and possessory interest in the property seized for forfeiture. Even though one may hold primary and direct title to the property seized, such person may not have sufficient actual beneficial interest in the property to support a petition as owner if the facts indicate that another person had dominion and control over the property.
    Personal use quantities means those amounts of controlled substances in possession in circumstances where there is no other evidence of an intent to distribute, or to facilitate the manufacturing, compounding, processing, delivering, importing, or exporting of any controlled substance.
  • (b) Serious drug offense means an offense involving manufacturing, distributing, or possessing with intent to manufacture or distribute, a controlled substance (as defined in Section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)), for which a maximum term of imprisonment of 10 years or more is prescribed by state law.
  • 31 C.F.R. § 536.319 — Narcotic drug; controlled substance; listed chemical.
    The terms narcotic drug, controlled substance, and listed chemical have the meanings given those terms in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • 31 C.F.R. § 598.309 — Narcotic drug; controlled substance; listed chemical.
    The terms narcotic drug, controlled substance, and listed chemical have the meanings given those terms in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • 31 C.F.R. § 599.314 — Proliferation of illicit drugs.
    The term proliferation of illicit drugs means any illicit activity to produce, manufacture, distribute, sell, or knowingly finance or transport: narcotic drugs, controlled substances, listed chemicals, or controlled substance analogues, as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • 33 C.F.R. § 95.010 — Definition of terms as used in this part.
    Alcohol means any form or derivative of ethyl alcohol (ethanol).
  • 39 C.F.R. § 232.1(g)(1) — Conduct on postal property.
    (1) A person under the influence of an alcoholic beverage or any drug that has been defined as a “controlled substance” may not enter postal property or operate a motor vehicle on postal property. The possession, sale, or use of any “controlled substance” (except when permitted by law) or the sale or use of any alcoholic beverage (except as authorized by the Postmaster General or designee) on postal premises is prohibited. The term “controlled substance” is defined in section 802 of title 21 U.S.C.
  • 39 C.F.R. § 233.8(b)(2) — Expedited forfeiture proceedings for property seizures based on violations involving the possession of personal use quantities of a controlled substance.
    (2) has the meaning given in 21 U.S.C. 802(6).
  • 40 C.F.R. § 312.1(c)(2)(iii) — Purpose, applicability, scope and disclosure obligations.
    (iii) Controlled substances, as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802.
  • 40 C.F.R. § 312.20(e)(2) — All appropriate inquiries.
    (2) In the case of persons identified in § 312.1(b)(2), the standards and practices for All Appropriate Inquiries set forth in this part are intended to result in the identification of conditions indicative of releases and threatened releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, and controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802) on, at, in, or to the subject property. In performing the all appropriate inquiries, as defined in this section and provided in the standards and practices set forth in this subpart, the persons identified under § 312.1(b) and the environmental professional, as defined in § 312.10, must seek to identify through the conduct of the standards and practices set forth in this subpart, the following types of information about the subject property:
    (i) Current and past property uses and occupancies;
    (ii) Current and past uses of hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, and controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802);
    (iii) Waste management and disposal activities;
    (iv) Current and past corrective actions and response activities undertaken to address past and on-going releases of hazardous substances pollutants, contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, and controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802);
    (v) Engineering controls;
    (vi) Institutional controls; and
    (vii) Properties adjoining or located nearby the subject property that have environmental conditions that could have resulted in conditions indicative of releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, and controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802) to the subject property.
  • 40 C.F.R. § 312.21(c)(1) — Results of inquiry by an environmental professional.
    (1) An opinion as to whether the inquiry has identified conditions indicative of releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances and in the case of inquiries conducted for persons identified in [§ 312.1(b)(2) conditions indicative of releases and threatened releases of pollutants, contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, and controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802)] on, at, in, or to the subject property;
  • 40 C.F.R. § 312.23(b) — Interviews with past and present owners, operators, and occupants.
    (b) The inquiry of the environmental professional must include interviewing the current owner and occupant of the subject property. If the property has multiple occupants, the inquiry of the environmental professional shall include interviewing major occupants, as well as those occupants likely to use, store, treat, handle or dispose of hazardous substances and in the case of inquiries conducted for persons identified in [§ 312.1(b)(2) pollutants, contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, and controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802)], or those who have likely done so in the past.
  • 40 C.F.R. § 312.27(b) — Visual inspections of the facility and of adjoining properties.
    (b) Persons conducting site characterization and assessments using a grant awarded under CERCLA section 104(k)(2)(B) must include in the inquiries referenced in § 312.27(a) visual inspections of areas where hazardous substances, and may include, as applicable per the terms and conditions of the grant or cooperative agreement, pollutants and contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, and controlled substances as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802 may be or may have been used, stored, treated, handled or disposed at the subject property and adjoining properties.
  • 40 C.F.R. § 312.29(c) — The relationship of the purchase price to the value of the property, if the property was not contaminated.
    (c) Persons conducting site characterization and assessments with the use of a grant awarded under CERCLA section 104(k)(2)(B) and who know that the purchase price of the subject property does not reasonably reflect the fair market value of that property, if the property were not contaminated, must consider whether or not the differential in purchase price and fair market value is due to the presence of releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, contaminants, petroleum and petroleum products, or controlled substances as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802.
  • 42 C.F.R. § 12.3(a) — Telemedicine prescribing of schedule III-V medications for the treatment of Opioid Use Disorder.
    (a) For purposes of this section, terms defined in 21 CFR part 1300, elsewhere in 21 CFR chapter II, or in 21 U.S.C. 802 and 829 shall have the definitions set forth therein.
  • (h) “Current substance use disorder or substance-induced disorder, mild” as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders (DSM) as published by the American Psychiatric Association, or by another authoritative source as determined by the Director, of a substance listed in Section 202 of the Controlled Substances Act, as amended (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • 43 C.F.R. § 8365.1-4(b)(1) — Public health, safety and comfort.
    (1) Cultivating, manufacturing, delivering, distributing or trafficking a controlled substance, as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(6) and 812 and 21 CFR 1308.11 through 1308.15, except when distribution is made by a licensed practitioner in accordance with applicable law. For the purposes of this paragraph, delivery means the actual, attempted or constructive transfer of a controlled substance whether or not there exists an agency relationship; or
  • 45 C.F.R. § 160.203(a)(2) — General rule and exceptions.
    (2) Has as its principal purpose the regulation of the manufacture, registration, distribution, dispensing, or other control of any controlled substances (as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802), or that is deemed a controlled substance by State law.
  • (a) has the meaning given that term in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802);
  • This part is applicable to any decision to deny Federal benefits, under authority of 21 U.S.C. 853a, to an individual convicted of a Federal or State offense involving distribution or possession of a controlled substance as defined by the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802.
  • 46 C.F.R. § 10.107(b)(5) — Definitions in subchapter B.
    (5) Criminal record review means the process or action taken by the Coast Guard to determine whether an applicant for, or holder of, a credential is a safe and suitable person to be issued such a credential or to be employed on a vessel under the authority of such a credential.
    Dangerous drug means a narcotic drug, a controlled substance, or a controlled-substance analogue (as defined in section 102 of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act of 1970 (21 U.S.C. 802)).
    Dangerous liquid or DL means a liquid listed in 46 CFR 153.40 of this chapter that is not a liquefied gas as defined in this part. Liquid cargoes in bulk listed in table 2 to part 153 of this chapter are not dangerous-liquid cargoes when carried by non-oceangoing barges.
    Day means, for the purpose of complying with the service requirements of this subchapter, 8 hours of watchstanding or day-working not to include overtime. On vessels authorized by 46 U.S.C. 8104 and § 15.705 of this subchapter, to operate a two-watch system, a 12-hour working day may be creditable as 1 1/2 days of service. On vessels of less than 100 GRT, a day is considered as 8 hours unless the Coast Guard determines that the vessel's operating schedule makes this criteria inappropriate; in no case will this period be less than 4 hours. When computing service on MODUs for any endorsement, a day of MODU service must be a minimum of 4 hours, and no additional credit is received for periods served over 8 hours. For cadet service on a training ship furnished by the Maritime Administration under 46 CFR 310.4, a day may be creditable as 1 1/2 days of service.
    Deck crew (excluding individuals serving under their officer endorsement) means, as used in 46 U.S.C. 8702, only the following members of the deck department: Able Seafarers, Boatswains, and Ordinary Seafarers.
    Deck department means the department aboard a ship responsible for navigation, cargo, command, and control functions.
    Designated areas means those areas within pilotage waters for which First-Class Pilot endorsements are issued under part 11, subpart G, of this chapter, by the Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection (OCMI). The areas for which First-Class Pilot endorsements are issued within a particular Marine Inspection Zone and the specific requirements to obtain them may be obtained from the OCMI concerned.
    Designated Duty Engineer or DDE means a qualified engineer, who may be the sole engineer on vessels with a periodically unmanned engine room.
    Designated Examiner or DE means a person who has been trained or instructed in techniques of training or assessment on towing vessels and is otherwise qualified to evaluate whether an applicant has achieved the level of proficiency required to hold a towing vessel endorsement on an MMC. This person must be approved by the Coast Guard.
    Designated Medical Examiner means a licensed physician, licensed physician's assistant, or licensed nurse practitioner who has been trained and approved to conduct medical and physical examinations of merchant mariners on behalf of the U.S. Coast Guard and may be delegated limited authority to grant waivers and approve physical/medical suitability for service.
    Directly supervised/direct supervision (only when referring to issues related to tank vessel endorsements) means being in the direct line of sight of the person-in-charge or maintaining direct, two-way communications by a convenient, reliable means, such as a predetermined working frequency over a handheld radio.
    Disabled vessel means a vessel that needs assistance, whether docked, moored, anchored, aground, adrift, or underway. This does not mean a barge or any other vessel not regularly operated under its own power.
    Document of Continuity means a document issued by the Coast Guard to seafarers who are unwilling or otherwise unable to meet the requirements of § 10.227, for the sole purpose of maintaining an individual's eligibility for renewal of an endorsement.
    Domestic voyage means a voyage from one United States port to another United States port, without entering waters under the jurisdiction of another country unless the United States has entered into a treaty or an agreement with that country respecting mutual recognition of national mariner qualifications. This includes a voyage to nowhere that returns to the originating port.
    Drug test means a chemical test of an individual's urine for evidence of dangerous drug use.
    Dual-mode integrated tug barge means an integrated tug barge (ITB) involving an articulated (flexible) coupling system where the towing unit rolls and heaves (articulates) about a horizontal pivot point. Dual mode units resemble a conventional tug and are capable of towing in other configurations (astern or alongside).
    Electro-technical Officer or ETO means an officer qualified in accordance with the provisions of Regulation III/6 of the STCW Convention.
    Electro-technical Rating or ETR means a rating qualified in accordance with the provisions of Regulation III/7 of the STCW Convention.
    Employment assigned to means the total period of time a person is assigned to work on MODUs, including time spent ashore as part of normal crew rotation.
    Endorsement is a statement of a mariner's qualifications and, for the purposes of this chapter, includes only those endorsements listed in § 10.109.
    Engine department means the department aboard a ship responsible for the main propulsion and auxiliary systems, and other mechanical, electrical, hydraulic, and refrigeration systems, including deck machinery and cargo-handling equipment.
    Entry-level mariner means a mariner holding no rating other than Ordinary Seafarer, Wiper, Steward's Department, or Steward's Department Food Handler (F.H.).
    Evaluation means processing an application, from the point of receipt to approval or denial of the application, including review of all documents and records submitted with an application as well as those obtained from public records and databases.
    Fails a chemical test for dangerous drugs means that the result of a chemical test conducted under 49 CFR part 40 was reported as “positive” by a Medical Review Officer because the chemical test indicated the presence of a dangerous drug at a level equal to or exceeding the levels established in 49 CFR part 40.
    First Assistant Engineer means the engineer officer next in rank to the Chief Engineer and upon whom the responsibility for the mechanical propulsion and the operation and maintenance of the mechanical and electrical installations of the vessel will fall in the event of the incapacity of the Chief Engineer.
    Great Lakes, for the purpose of calculating service requirements for an endorsement, means the Great Lakes and their connecting and tributary waters, including the Calumet River as far as the Thomas J. O'Brien Lock and Controlling Works (between miles 326 and 327), the Chicago River as far as the east side of the Ashland Avenue Bridge (between miles 321 and 322), and the Saint Lawrence River as far east as the lower exit of Saint Lambert Lock. For purposes of requiring MMCs with rating endorsements, the connecting and tributary waters are not part of the Great Lakes.
    Gross register tons or GRT means the gross ton measurement of the vessel under 46 U.S.C. chapter 145, Regulatory Measurement.
    Gross tonnage or GT means the gross tonnage measurement of the vessel under 46 U.S.C. chapter 143, Convention Measurement.
    Harbor assist means the use of a towing vessel during maneuvers to dock, undock, moor, or unmoor a vessel, or to escort a vessel with limited maneuverability.
    High-Speed Craft Type Rating (HSC) means an endorsement for specific duty on a particular type and model of high-speed craft (compliant with the High-Speed Craft Code).
    Horsepower or HP means, for the purpose of this subchapter, the total maximum continuous shaft horsepower of the entire vessel's main propulsion machinery as determined by the manufacturer. This term is used when describing a vessel's propulsion power and also when placing limitations on an engineer officer license or endorsement. One horsepower equals 0.75 kW.
    ILO means the International Labour Organization.
    IMO means the International Maritime Organization.
    Increase in scope means additional authority added to an existing credential, such as adding a new route or increasing the authorized horsepower or tonnage.
    Inland waters means the navigable waters of the United States shoreward of the Boundary Lines as described in part 7 of this chapter, excluding the Great Lakes, and, for towing vessels, excluding the Western Rivers.
    Integrated tug barge or ITB means any tug barge combination which, through the use of special design features or a specially designed connection system, has increased seakeeping capabilities relative to a tug and barge in the conventional pushing mode. An ITB can be divided into either a dual-mode ITB or a push-mode ITB. The definitions for those categories can be found elsewhere in this section.
    Invalid credential means an MMC, MMD, License, STCW endorsement, or Certificate of Registry that has been suspended or revoked, has expired, has been tampered with, has not been signed, or has been superseded in accordance with § 10.205.
    ISM means the International Safety Management Code.
    Kilowatt or kW means 1 1/3 horsepower. This term is used when describing a vessel's propulsion power and also when placing limitations on an engineer officer license or endorsement.
    Large passenger vessel, for the purposes of subpart H of part 12, and part 15 (both of this subchapter), means a vessel of more than 70,000 gross tons, as measured under 46 U.S.C. 14302 and documented under the laws of the United States, with capacity for at least 2,000 passengers and a coastwise endorsement under 46 U.S.C. chapter 121.
    Lifeboat Operator means a mariner who is qualified to take charge of, lower, and operate survival craft and related survival equipment on a vessel.
    Lifeboat Operator-Limited means a mariner who is qualified to take charge of, lower, and operate liferafts, rescue boats, and other survival equipment on vessels where lifeboats are not installed.
    Liquefied gas or LG means a cargo that has a vapor pressure of 172 kPa (25 psia) or more at 37.8 °C (100 °F).
    Liquefied gas tanker means a tank vessel that is certificated to carry or carries liquefied gases in bulk as cargo or cargo residue. For the purposes of qualifying for an STCW endorsement for advanced liquefied gas tanker cargo operations, this includes tank barges.
    Liquid cargo in bulk means a liquid or liquefied gas listed in § 153.40 of this chapter and carried as a liquid cargo or liquid-cargo residue in integral, fixed, or portable tanks, except a liquid cargo carried in a portable tank actually loaded and discharged from a vessel with the contents intact.
    Management level means the level of responsibility associated with—
  • 46 C.F.R. § 16.105(2)(iv) — Definitions of terms used in this part.
    (iv) Individuals not required under part 15 of this subchapter who have no duties that directly affect the safe operation of the vessel.
    Dangerous drug means a narcotic drug, a controlled substance, or a controlled-substance analog (as defined in section 102 of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act of 1970 (21 U.S.C. 802)).
    Drug test means a chemical test of an individual's urine for evidence of dangerous drug use.
    Employer means a marine employer or sponsoring organization.
    Fails a chemical test for dangerous drugs means that the result of a chemical test conducted in accordance with 49 CFR 40 was reported as “positive” by a Medical Review Officer because the chemical test indicated the presence of a dangerous drug at a level equal to or exceeding the levels established in 49 CFR part 40.
    Marine employer means the owner, managing operator, charterer, agent, Master, or Person in Charge of a vessel, other than a recreational vessel.
    Medical Review Officer (MRO) means a person who is a licensed physician and who is responsible for receiving and reviewing laboratory results generated by an employer's drug testing program and evaluating medical explanations for certain drug test results.
    Operation means to navigate, steer, direct, manage, or sail a vessel, or to control, monitor, or maintain the vessel's main or auxiliary equipment or systems. Operation includes:
  • As used in this part only—
  • As used in this part—
  • As used in this part—
  • As used in this part:
  • As used in this part:
  • 49 C.F.R. § 350.207(a)(20)(iii) — MCSAP administration: Conditions to qualify for funds.
    (iii) Related to criminal interdiction, including human trafficking, when conducted with an appropriate CMV inspection and appropriate strategies for carrying out those interdiction activities, including interdiction activities that affect the transportation of controlled substances (as defined in section 102 of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 (21 U.S.C. 802) and listed in 21 CFR part 1308) by any occupant of a CMV;
  • (ii) Controlled substance has the meaning such term has under 21 U.S.C. 802(6) and includes all substances listed on schedules I through V of 21 CFR 1308 (§§ 1308.11 through 1308.15), as they may be amended by the United States Department of Justice.
    Conviction means an unvacated adjudication of guilt, or a determination that a person has violated or failed to comply with the law in a court of original jurisdiction or by an authorized administrative tribunal, an unvacated forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure the person's appearance in court, a plea of guilty or nolo contendere accepted by the court, the payment of a fine or court cost, or violation of a condition of release without bail, regardless of whether or not the penalty is rebated, suspended, or probated.
    Disqualification means any of the following three actions:
  • 6 C.F.R. § 139.45(a) — Narcotics, other drugs, and drug paraphernalia.
    (a) Except when a patient uses a narcotic or drug as prescribed by a licensed health care provider in accordance with Federal law, any person on Federal property is prohibited from being under the influence of, using, possessing, or operating a vehicle while under the influence of any controlled substance as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802, 812, 841.
  • (i) The State agency must permanently disqualify a vendor convicted of trafficking in food instruments or cash-value vouchers or selling firearms, ammunition, explosives, or controlled substances (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)) in exchange for food instruments or cash-value vouchers. A vendor is not entitled to receive any compensation for revenues lost as a result of such violation. If reflected in its State Plan, the State agency may impose a civil money penalty in lieu of a disqualification for this violation when it determines, in its sole discretion, and documents that:
    (A) Disqualification of the vendor would result in inadequate participant access; or
    (B) The vendor had, at the time of the violation, an effective policy and program in effect to prevent trafficking; and the ownership of the vendor was not aware of, did not approve of, and was not involved in the conduct of the violation.
  • (c) A controlled substance analogue (having the meaning given it in section 102(32) of the Controlled Substance Act (21 U.S.C. 802(32)).
    Dual participation means simultaneous participation in the Program in one or more than one WIC clinic, or participation in the Program and in the CSFP during the same period of time.
    EBT Capable means the WIC vendor demonstrates their cash register system or payment device can accurately and securely obtain WIC food balances associated with an EBT card, maintain the necessary files such as the authorized product list, hot card file and claim file and successfully complete WIC EBT purchases.
    Electronic Benefit Transfer (EBT) means a method that permits electronic access to WIC food benefits using a card or other access device approved by the Secretary.
    Electronic signature means an electronic sound, symbol, or process, attached to or associated with an application or other record and executed and or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record.
    Emergency period means a period during which there exists:
    (1) Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq.).
    (2) Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121 et seq.).
    (3) A public health emergency declared by the Secretary of HHS under section 319 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 247d).
    (4) Employee fraud and abuse means the intentional conduct of a State, local agency or clinic employee which violates program regulations, policies, or procedures, including, but not limited to, misappropriating or altering food instruments or cash-value vouchers, entering false or misleading information in case records, or creating case records for fictitious participants.
    Exempt infant formula means an infant formula that meets the requirements for an exempt infant formula under section 412(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 350a(h)) and the regulations at 21 CFR parts 106 and 107.
    Family means a group of related or nonrelated individuals who are living together as one economic unit, except that residents of a homeless facility or an institution shall not all be considered as members of a single family.
    Farmer means an individual authorized by the State agency to sell eligible fruits and vegetables to participants at a farmers' market or roadside stands. Individuals who exclusively sell produce grown by someone else, such as wholesale distributors, cannot be authorized.
    Farmers' market means an association of local farmers who assemble at a defined location for the purpose of selling their produce directly to consumers.
    Fiscal year means the period of 12 calendar months beginning October 1 of any calendar year and ending September 30 of the following calendar year.
    FNS means the Food and Nutrition Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
    Food costs means the costs of supplemental foods, determined in accordance with § 246.14(b).
    Food delivery system means the method used by State and local agencies to provide supplemental foods to participants.
    Food instrument means a voucher, check, electronic benefits transfer card (EBT), coupon or other document which is used by a participant to obtain supplemental foods.
    Food sales means sales of all SNAP eligible foods intended for home preparation and consumption, including meat, fish, and poultry; bread and cereal products; dairy products; fruits and vegetables. Food items such as condiments and spices, coffee, tea, cocoa, and carbonated and noncarbonated drinks may be included in food sales when offered for sale along with foods in the categories identified above. Food sales do not include sales of any items that cannot be purchased with SNAP benefits, such as hot foods or food that will be eaten in the store.
    Full nutrition benefit means the minimum amount of reconstituted fluid ounces of liquid concentrate infant formula as specified in Table 1 of § 246.10(e)(9) for each food package category and infant feeding variation (e.g., Food Package IA fully formula fed, IA-FF).
    Health services means ongoing, routine pediatric and obstetric care (such as infant and child care and prenatal and postpartum examinations) or referral for treatment.
    High-risk vendor means a vendor identified as having a high probability of committing a vendor violation through application of the criteria established in § 246.12(j)(3) and any additional criteria established by the State agency.
    Home food delivery contractor means a sole proprietorship, partnership, cooperative association, corporation, or other business entity that contracts with a State agency to deliver authorized supplemental foods to the residences of participants under a home food delivery system.
    Homeless facility means the following types of facilities which provide meal service. A supervised publicly or privately operated shelter (including a welfare hotel or congregate shelter) designed to provide temporary living accommodations; a facility that provides a temporary residence for individuals intended to be institutionalized; or a public or private place not designed for, or normally used as, a regular sleeping accommodation for human beings.
    Homeless individual means a woman, infant or child:
  • (2) For households consisting solely of public assistance or general assistance recipients, it may also mean the application form used to apply for public assistance or general assistance, including attachments approved by FNS, which is completed by a household member or authorized representative.
    Assessment an in-depth evaluation of employability skills coupled with counseling on how and where to search for employment. If combined with work experience, employment search or training, an assessment of this nature could constitute part of an approvable employment and training component.
    Authorization document means an intermediary document issued by the State agency and used in an issuance system to authorize a specific benefit amount for a household.
    Beginning month(s) in a Monthly Reporting and Retrospective Budgeting system means either the first month for which the household is certified for SNAP benefits (where the State agency has adopted a one month accounting system) or the first month for which the household is certified for SNAP benefits and the month thereafter (where the State agency has adopted a two month accounting system). Except for beginning months in sequence as described in the preceding sentences, a beginning month cannot be any month which immediately follows a month in which a household is certified. The month following the month of termination resulting from a one-month temporary change in household circumstances shall not be considered a beginning month.
    Benefit means the value of supplemental nutrition assistance provided to a household by means of an EBT system or other means of providing assistance, as determined by the Secretary.
    Benefit issuer means any office of the State agency or any person, partnership, corporation, organization, political subdivision or other entity with which a State agency has contracted for, or to which it has delegated functional responsibility, in connection with the issuance of benefits to households.
    Budget month in a Monthly Reporting and Retrospective Budgeting system means the fiscal or calendar month from which the State agency uses income and other circumstances of the household to calculate the household's SNAP allotment to be provided for the corresponding issuance month.
    Communal dining facility means a public or nonprofit private establishment, approved by FNS, which prepares and serves meals for elderly persons, or for supplemental security income (SSI) recipients, and their spouses, a public or private nonprofit establishment (eating or otherwise) that feeds elderly persons or SSI recipients, and their spouses, and federally subsidized housing for the elderly at which meals are prepared for and served to the residents. It also includes private establishments that contract with an appropriate State or local agency to offer meals at concessional prices to elderly persons or SSI recipients, and their spouses.
    Completion of participation in E&T means that an E&T participant has not received any E&T services for at least 90 days and no future services are planned.
    Coupon means any coupon, stamp, type of certificate, authorization card, cash or check issued in lieu of a coupon, or access device, including an electronic benefit transfer card or personal identification number issued pursuant to the provisions of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, as amended, for the purchase of eligible food.
    Deficiency means any aspect of a State's program operations determined to be out of compliance with the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, FNS Regulations, or program requirements as contained in the State agency's manual, the State agency's approved Plan of Operation or other State agency plans.
    Department means the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
    Drug addiction or alcoholic treatment and rehabilitation program means any drug addiction or alcoholic treatment and rehabilitation program conducted by a private, nonprofit organization or institution, or a publicly operated community mental health center, under part B of title XIX of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300x et seq.). Under part B of title XIX of the Public Health Service Act is defined as meeting the criteria which would make it eligible to receive funds, even if it does not actually receive funding under part B of title XIX.
    Elderly or disabled member means a member of a household who: (1) Is 60 years of age or older;
  • 7 C.F.R. § 273.11(m) — Action on households with special circumstances.
    (m) An individual convicted (under Federal or State law) of any offense which is classified as a felony by the law of the jurisdiction involved and which has as an element the possession, use, or distribution of a controlled substance (as defined in section 102(6) of the Controlled Substance Act, 21 U.S.C. 802(6)) shall not be considered an eligible household member unless the State legislature of the State where the individual is domiciled has enacted legislation exempting individuals domiciled in the State from the above exclusion. If the State legislature has enacted legislation limiting the period of disqualification, the period of ineligibility shall be equal to the length of the period provided under such legislation. Ineligibility under this provision is only limited to convictions based on behavior which occurred after August 22, 1996. The income and resources of individuals subject to disqualification under this paragraph (m) shall be treated in accordance with the procedures at paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
  • 7 C.F.R. § 273.16(b)(2) — Disqualification for intentional Program violation.
    (2) Individuals found by a Federal, State or local court to have used or received benefits in a transaction involving the sale of a controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)) shall be ineligible to participate in the Program:
    (i) For a period of twenty four months upon the first occasion of such violation; and
  • 7 C.F.R. § 278.6(h)(2)(iii) — Disqualification of retail food stores and wholesale food concerns, and imposition of civil money penalties in lieu of disqualifications.
    (iii) Written materials, which may include FNS publications and program regulations that are available to all authorized firms, are used in the training program. Training materials shall clearly state that the following acts are prohibited and are in violation of the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 and regulations: the exchange of food coupons, ATP cards or other program access devices for cash; and, in exchange for coupons, the sale of firearms, ammunition, explosives or controlled substances, as the term is defined in section 802 of title 21, United States Code.
  • (ii) A retail food store that is not authorized to accept or redeem Summer EBT benefits; or
  • Words used in this subpart in the singular form shall be deemed to impart the plural, and vice versa, as the case may demand. For the purposes of provisions and regulations of this part, unless the context otherwise requires, the following terms shall be construed, respectively, to mean:
  • 8 C.F.R. § 1212.11 — Controlled substance convictions.
    In determining the admissibility of an alien who has been convicted of a violation of any law or regulation of a State, the United States, or a foreign country relating to a controlled substance, the term controlled substance as used in section 212(a)(23) of the Act, shall mean the same as that referenced in the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 801, et seq., and shall include any substance contained in Schedules I through V of 21 CFR 1308.1, et seq. For the purposes of this section, the term controlled substance includes controlled substance analogues as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(23) and 813.
  • (v) Participants must abide by all Federal, state, and local laws regarding the importation of alcohol or agricultural products or the importation or possession of controlled substances as defined in section 101 of the Controlled Substance Act (21 U.S.C. 802).
  • 8 C.F.R. § 235.7(a)(5)(x) — Automated inspection services (PORTPASS).
    (x) That a participant must abide by all Federal, state and local laws regarding the importation of alcohol or agricultural products or the importation or possession of controlled substances as defined in section 101 of the Controlled Substance Act (21 U.S.C. § 802).
  • (f) The term controlled substance, as used in section 287(d)(3) of the Act, shall mean the same as that referenced in the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 801 et seq., and shall include any substance contained in Schedules I through V of 21 CFR 1308.1 et seq. For the purposes of this chapter, the term controlled substance includes controlled substance analogues as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(23) and 813.

United States Code Citations

Cited by 118 provisions in release 119-102.

Citations to 21 U.S.C. § 802 as a whole

Citations to §802(1)

Citations to §802(6)

Citations to §802(10)

Citations to §802(17)(A)

Citations to §802(17)(B)

Citations to §802(17)(C)

Citations to §802(17)(D)

Citations to §802(17)(E)

Citations to §802(25)

Citations to §802(27)

Citations to §802(32)

Citations to §802(33)

Citations to §802(39)(A)

  • (i) The Attorney General shall register an applicant to distribute a list I chemical unless the Attorney General determines that registration of the applicant is inconsistent with the public interest. Registration under this subsection shall not be required for the distribution of a drug product that is exempted under clause (iv) or (v) of section 802(39)(A) of this title. In determining the public interest for the purposes of this subsection, the Attorney General shall consider—
    (1) maintenance by the applicant of effective controls against diversion of listed chemicals into other than legitimate channels;
    (2) compliance by the applicant with applicable Federal, State, and local law;
    (3) any prior conviction record of the applicant under Federal or State laws relating to controlled substances or to chemicals controlled under Federal or State law;
    (4) any past experience of the applicant in the manufacture and distribution of chemicals; and
    (5) such other factors as are relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.

Citations to §802(39)(A)(iv)

Citations to §802(41)

Citations to §802(49)

Citations to §802(52)

  • (1) For purposes of sections 802(52) and 882(c)(6)(B) of this title, the Secretary shall notify the Attorney General, at such times and in such manner as the Secretary and the Attorney General determine appropriate, of the Indian tribes or tribal organizations with which the Secretary has contracted or compacted under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act [25 U.S.C. 5301 et seq.] for the tribes or tribal organizations to provide pharmacy services.

Citations to §802(54)(E)

Citations to §802(54)(F)